Archiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2005-10 > 1130702203

From: "Glen Todd" <>
Subject: RE: [DNA]
Date: Sun, 30 Oct 2005 12:56:43 -0700
In-Reply-To: <001101c5dd88$d4d72f10$47edfea9@denisebndh1av9>

> Does anyone know if testing a black male to determine if he
> was a descendant of a white slave owner in the late 1700s
> of any use. In other words, would European ancestry, in
> this case from Wales, show up in a present day black
> male if he were tested for Y-DNA?

Assuming that it were uninterrupted straight male line, quite probably.
(In other words, it would have to be father's father's father's ..., all the
way down. Any connection through a mother would break it.) Also, there
is no absolutely definitive connection between haplogroup and race (an
example being our ongoing E3b argument). There are some high probability
associations; if you see a 'black' (over-general term that I don't like)
male with haplogroup I or R1b - both basically 'white' Western European -
you might well be able to speculate that such is the case. It is
speculation, though. You would need to build a better case, such as - as
in one case that was discussed here a while back - a close genetic match to
a European family line that was known to be the line of an overseer on the
plantation where the African ancestor was a slave.


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