Archiver > GENEALOGY-DNA > 2006-12 > 1166313025

From: ellen Levy <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] Aryan, Arian, Arianism....
Date: Sat, 16 Dec 2006 15:50:25 -0800 (PST)
In-Reply-To: <>


The Indo-Aryan linguistic grouping and its potential
link with haplogroup R1a has nothing to do with the
Nazi concept of "Aryan" racial supremacy. You know it
and I know and so does everyone else on the list.

I'm referring to an earlier email to the list in which
your were discussing the "concept" of Aryan racial
supremacy. That's where you departed from the actual
discussions here, Sasson. It had nothing to do with
Indo-Aryan lingustics, nor anything to do with
haplogroups R1a, L or R1.

You then stated this "concept" was a "hypothetical
possibility" explored by "scientists." I noted that
you quoted only a portion of my previous response to
this, so that it gave the impression we were in
agreement. I'd appreciate it if you would provide the
entire quote next time so as not to give the
impression of being disingenous, Sasson, nor

You weren't talking about 19th century linguistics and
the connection between Indo-Aryan languages and
German, which is not exactly close except that they
are both derived from an earlier Indo-European
proto-language. But then, so is Lithuanian, right?
Earlier linguistic studies wasn't even mentioned in
your email. You were specifically responding to
John's statement that this "concept" had been used in
a racial (not linguistic) sense to discriminate
against people for ill-defined reasons. I'd go
further than that - not just discriminate, but used as
justification to kill millions of people.

Your specific response was as follows:

"As more genetic, historic and linguistic evidence is
accumulated, we know that the concept is wrong. But
hundred years ago, it was a hypothetical possibility
that scientists were considering, and it turned out to
be wrong."

So what does this have to do with R1a's origins and
its potential link with the movements of linguistic
entity known as the Indo-Aryans? Absolutely nothing.

So what would even be your point of indicating
"similarities" between German and Indo-Aryan
languages? What are those similarities, Sasson, and
what is the relevance to the discussion? Why not
discuss similarities between Indo-Aryan languages and
Lithuanian, which is far more significant?

One issue to consider in these discussions of R1a or
even J2a and Indo-Aryans is the likelihood (or lack
thereof) that the speakers of a particular linguistic
group would consist primarily of a single haplogroup.

Ellen Coffman

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