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From: "Milos Bogdanovic" <>
Subject: Re: [DNA] Phoenician people and their HLA-B antigen
Date: Sat, 18 Aug 2007 23:47:17 +0200
References: <815794.68231.qm@web52102.mail.re2.yahoo.com>


> What does "Semitized" mean exactly?

"Semitic", in my understanding, is a language

family, not a people.



You Ellen certainly know that language groups differ

among themselves in a pool of unique word roots and

by unique grammatical principles.



What does that mean?



It means that their bearers in time of forming of the language

lived in genetic isolation from other human populations, so that

period of endogamy and genetic drift formed anthropological

specificity of all such populations. If people used to mix among

themselves, there wouldn't be different language groups.



And as there was a period of linguistic isolation it is clear that

there must have been a period of genetic isolation as well.

Thus every language group has specific anthropological

characteristics which we can trace among indigenous bearers.



Have you noticed that Indo-Europeans populate area HG-R?



Or that Finno-Ugric at the area HG-N?



Etc?



This is correlation between Indo-European language group and antigene HLA-A1:



http://prosvetiteljstvo.users.sbb.co.yu/%20hlaa1%20korelacija.jpg



You were confused why I mentioned semites as a notion that describes

human population? Haven't you noticed in Arabs, and other bearers of

semitic (afro-asiatic) language groups certain anthropological specificity

that differentiates them from the other language groups?



In other words - don't you recognize someone as e.g. Arabic by appearance?



Those people I name semites.



> And how exactly has it been determined that Phoenicians as a

people did not have haplogroup J, as you assert (or at least that

how I interpreted your statement, though I may have deciphered

it incorrectly)?



I didn't say that they didn't have that group, but that HG-J and

HG-I is not dominant in Phoenicians. Antigene HLA-B18

corresponds to HG-J but lost that origin early in time due to

contact with semites.



> I'm afraid I have no idea what "semitized from father lineage from HG-E" means.


That means that HLA-B18 corresponds to western mediterranenan

population (it follows western mediterranenan speech accent), but

mixing with semites they lost their original male origin (y chromosome)

which corresponded to mediterranean-dinaric branch HG-J and received

semitic HG-E.



It is usual that male invaders in warfares kill male natives and take

their wives, so analyzing Y chromosome usually isn't sufficient if we

wish a real picture of the origin of the population. Basque population

display 88,1% of HG-R1b on the male side, while other genetic

markers show a variety of anthropological types.



Analyzing only Y chromosome in order to determine real origin

of a population is not scientific.



M.B.





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