GENIRE-L ArchivesArchiver > GENIRE > 2003-03 > 1047302348
From: "Sean MacLochlainn" <>
Subject: Re: What is the meaning of the term "Scot-Irish"
Date: Mon, 10 Mar 2003 13:19:08 -0000
References: <firstname.lastname@example.org> <2wKaa.10721$wJ1.email@example.com> <firstname.lastname@example.org> <3E6C79FD.E93790F3@rogers.com>
Jim Pettit wrote:
> It ignores the fact that Antrim and Down were settled by routine
> Presbyterian immigration from Scotland and were thus not part of the
Antrim and Down had a private-sector plantation (ie: colonisation), the
rest of Ulster had a government sponsored plantation. Colonisation is
colonisation is colonisation. Next you'll be arguing that Antrim and Down
were terra incognita.
> ...that land ownership
> had always been concentrated in Ireland so that the replacement of a
> small group of landowners had little effect on the population who
> normally leased their property
The plantation was more than a change in landlords. It was the eradication
of the native social system by the wholesale import and plantation of tens
of thousands of loyal Scots and English colonists. Read the early
seventeenth century English government state papers in which the plantation
is discussed and it will leave you in no doubt that the government hoped
that plantation would reduce the barbarous natives to civility, etc.
> ... and that the Penal Laws didn't come
> out of the blue. Each set followed a massacre of Protestants and was
> a means of trying to prevent the old landowners from causing further
> deaths. The laws were also indifferently enforced and didn't affect
> the majority of the population.
ie: your massacres were worse than our massacres. So that makes the penal
laws OK then. Do you realise thar the penal laws discriminated against
Presbyterians as much as they discriminated against Roman Catholics? I